General Science MCQ (Part-2)

                                          General Sceience

                                                                            (Part-2)

38. when the velocity of a body increase with time then its

Ans: Positive

39. When the velocity of a body decreases with time then its acceleration is -

Ans: Negative

40. If velocity of a body is decreasing then the acceleration is called-

Ans: Retardation or deceleration

41: What is the  acceleration of a body moving with constant velocity

Ans: Zero

42. On applying a constant force to a body its move with uniform

Ans: Acceleration 

43. A body moves with a constant speed along a curved path its acceleration is

Ans: Perpendicular to its velocity

44.The body executing free falling motion have

Ans: Equal acceleration

45. An iron ball and wooden ball of the same radius are released from the same height in a vacuum. The time taken by both of the these to reach the ground is

Ans: Exactly equal

46. When two bodies are moving in the straight line, the speed of one with respect to another is known as its

Ans: Relative speed or velocity

47. When a rock thrown straight upward gets to the expect top of its path, its

Ans: velocity is zero and Acceleration is about 10 m/s²

48. A  body given with an initial velocity moved under the effect of gravity is called

Ans: Projectile

49.The path of projectile is a

Ans: Parabola

50.The achieve maximum range the body should be projected at an angle-

Ans : 45°

51. To achieve maximum range the body should project at an angle of -

Ans: 90°

52 A bullet fired from a gun making an angle of 45° with the earth's surface follows a-

Ans : Parabola Path

53. The motion in which a particle moves along a straight line is called

Ans: Rectilinear motion

54. The motion in which particle moves along a circular path, is called-

Ans: Circular motion

55. If an object moves along a circular path with uniform speed , then its ,motion is called-

Ans: Uniform circular motion

56. If an object undergoes a uniform circular motion, then what will be changes-

Ans: Its velocity

57. The time required for one complete revolution or cycle of the circular motion is called

Ans: Time Period

58. If a body rotates about a line (axis) passing through it then the motion is called-

Ans: Rotatory motion or Rotational motion

59. The motion in which a body moves to and fro or back and forth repeatedly about a fixed point, is called -

Ans: Oscillatroy Motion

The sun most important note

The Sun

• The Sun is at the centre of the Solar System.
• Its size is thirteen lakh times as that of the Earth.

• It is the nearest star to the Earth.
• It is an ultimate source of energy for life on Earth.
• Its diameter is 14 lakh kms.
• It is composed of 71%Hydrogen, 26.5% Helium and 2.5% other elements.
• Hydrogen and Helium are the main gases present in the Sun.

• Within the Sun, hydrogen is converted to Helium due to nuclear fusion releasing a tremendous amount of heat and light.
• It has a surface temperature of about 6000 C.
• The temperature at the centre is around 15,000,0000C.

• Shining surface of the sun is called photosphere, it appears like a disc
radiates energy and acts as a source of energy.
• The outer layer of sun's atmosphere made up of thin hot gases, is called Corona. Corona is visible only during a total eclipse of the sun (or with a special solar telescope called Coronagraph).

• The planet travels with the sun through millions of stars in our galaxy at a speed of about 70,000 km per hour.
• The sun is about 150 million kms away from the Earth.
• Light (at the speed of 3000000 km per second) takes about 8.5 minutes to reach the Earth from the Sun.

The Planets

• These are opaque bodies which continuously revolve around and are
• lighted by the Sun.
• There are eight planets in the Solar system.
• A ninth planet has been recently discovered by NASA named as
• Carla.
• The sequence of planets according to their distance from the Sun is
• Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune.
• The sequence of planets according to their size (in descending order ie. from big to small) is Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune, Earth, Venus,
• Mars, Mercury.

• Jupiter is the biggest and mercury is the smallest planets of our solar system.

Classification of Planets

• The eight planets have been divided into two groups. All the planets of a particular group have some common features. Terrestrial planets or Rocky planets and' "Jovian planets' or 'Gaseous planets" (Gas giants) are the two groups of planets.
• The four planets nearest to the Sun-Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars are called terrestrial planets, because their structure is similar to the earth.
• Other four planets-Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune are called Jovian planets.
• Planets are classified into the following two groups inner and outer planets. These are separated by asteroid belt.:

Inner Planets

• They include Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars.
• They are nearer to the sun.
• They are made up of dense metallic minerals.
• They move faster and have a shorter period of revolution
• They have thin, rocky crust.
• They have a mantle rich in iron and magnesium
• They have a core of molten metal’s.
• They have thin atmosphere.
• They have very few natural satellites (or moons)or no satellites.’’

Outer Planets

• They include Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune etc.
• They are far away from the sun.
• They are made up of hot gases,mainely hydrogen and helium.
• They move rather slowly and have a longer period of revolution.
• They are all gaseous bodies.
• Made of gases.
• They have ring systems around them
• They have a large number of natural satellites or moons) 

Solar System most important point

Star

• Clumps of dust and gas in a nebula come together due to gravity and form
Stars are made of hot burning gases.
• They emit light of their own and are very large and very hot.
• Light takes about 4.3 years to reach us from the next nearest star proxima Centauri.

The Solar System

and thousands of other smaller heavenly bodies such as asteroids, comets and meteors.

The sun is at the centre of the solar system and all these bodies are revolving around it.

The gravitational pull of the sun keeps all the planets and other objects revolving round it. Thus, the motion of all the members of  the solar system is governed mainly by the gravitational force of the sun.

Planets revolve around the sun in elliptical orbit.

In the solar system the planet nearest to the sun is Mercury and the

planet farthest from the sun is Neptune (not Pluto).

The size of solar system has been estimated to at about 105 AU.

The solar system is dominated by the sun which accounts for almost 999% of the matter in the whole solar system.

The sun is also the source of aill the energy in the solar system.

Pluto is a dwarf planet.

Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars are called terrestrial planets and Jupiter,Saturn, Uranus and Neptune are called gaseous planets and 

Most important Universe ,Galaxy,The big bang theory

Universe

• The universe is commonly defined as the totality of everything that exists,
• Including all physical matter and energy, the planets, stars, galaxies and the contents of intergalactic space.
• The study of universe is known as Cosmology.
Cosmology= cosmos (universe)+ logos (science)
• The universe has no limit.


Galaxy

• Aalaxy is a vast system of billions of stars, which also contains a large number
of gas clouds (mainly of hydrogen gas) and dust, isolated in space from similar
systems.
• There are about 100 billion galaxies (10 galaxies) in the universe, and each galaxy has, on an average, 100 billion stars (1011 stars). So, the total number of
stars in the universe is 1022 stars.

• The Milky Way Galaxy is the home of the Earth and our Solar System. It is
spiral in shape.

• Milky Way Galaxy was formed 5 billion years after the Big Bang

• Latest known galaxy is the Dwarf Galaxy.

• According to the modern thought, universe can be classified into two parts
namely-(a) Atmosphere and (b) Space.

• Origin of the universe is explained by the Big Bang Theory, formulated and
Proposed by the Belgian astronomer and cosmologist Georges Lemaitre.

• Andromeda is our nearest galaxy



The Big Bang Theory

• All the matter in the universe was originally a concentrated lump called
Primeval atom.

• Big Bang was an explosion that occurred 15 billion years ago, leading to the
Tormation of galaxies of stars and other heavenly bodies.

• Since then, all the galaxies have been flying away from one another causing
expansion of the universe.

General Science MCQ (Part-1)

                                                     General Science

1 Who is the father of Modern Physics

Ans: Galileo Galilei

2 . The chosen standard used tor measuring a physical quantity

is called 

Ans : Unit

3. The MKS (Meter Kilogram Second) system and CGS (Centimeter Gram Second) system are called

Ans: Metric or decimal system

4: CGS system is also called -

Ans: Gaussian system

5 The first country to adopt metric system was-

Ans: France

6.The FPS (Foot Pound Second) system is also called

Ans: British system

7.The fundamental units in SI system, are the same as that of-

Ans: M.K.S units

8. Number of basic SI units are -

Ans: 7

9.What is the Sl unit of Length-

Ans: Meter

10.What is the SI unit of Mass-

Ans: Kilogram

11.What is the SI unit of time-

Ans: Second

12.What is the SI unit of Electric Current

Ans: Ampere

13. What is the SI Unit of Thermodynamic temperature

Ans: Kelvin

14. What is the SI unit of Luminous intensity

Ans: Candela

15. What is the Sl unit of Amount of substance-

Ans: Mole

16. Number of suPplementary Sl units are-

Ans: 2

17. What is the SI unit ot Plane Angle -

Ans: Radian

18. What is the SI unit of Solid Angle -

Ans: Steradian

19. Physical quantities which have magnitude only and no direction ?

Ans: Scalar Quantity

20. Give some examples of Scalar quantities

Ans: Distance, Mass, Speed, Volume, Work, Time, Power, Energy, lressure etc.

21.Physical quantities which have both magnitude and direction, and which obey the triangular law of addition are called -

Ans: Vector quantities

22. Give some examples of vector quantiies

Ans: Displacement, Velocity, Acceleration, Force, Momentum, Weight, Torque, electric Current density etc.

23.The study of motion of object is called -

Ans: Kinematics

24.The total length of the path travelled by a body ina particular time interval is called

Ans: Distance

25. What is the SI unit of Distance

Ans: Meter

26.he change in position of the body of a certain direction is known as

Ans: Displacement

27. What is the SI unit of Displacement -

Ans: Meter

28. The rate of change of position of the object in any direction is called.

Ans: Speed of the Object

29. The rate of change of displacement of a body is called

Ans: Velocity

30. bus covers the first half of a certain distance with speed V, and the second half with a speed V2 The average speed during the whole journey iss -

Ans: 2 V, V/V+V,

31. A bus travels for a certaln time. Its speed during the first half time is V, and that during the second half time is V, The average speed during the whole journey is -

Ans: V,+ V/2

32. If a body 1s moving on a Circular path, then after completing one complete cycle, its average Velocity is -

Ans: Zero

33. If an object covers equal displacement in equal intervals of time is called -

Ans: Uniform Velocity

34. If an object covers unequal displacement in equal intervals of time is called -

Ans: Non-uniform Velocity

33. he ratio of the total displacement to the total time taken is called

Ans: Average Velocity

34. The rate of change of Velocity of a body is called as -

Ans: Acceleration

35. What is the SI unit of acceleration

Ans: M/S²

36. The rate of change of Velocity of a body is called as -

Ans: Acceleration

37. What is the SI unit of acceleration

Ans: M/S²₆₆

Political GK Questions for Competitive Exams

                                   Political GK Questions 

Q.1 Constitution of India was adopted by constituent assembly on?

(A) 25 October, 1948

(B) 25 October, 1949

(C) 26 November, 1948

(D) 26 November, 1949

Ans .  (D) 26 November, 1949 

Q.2 Constitution of India came into effect from?

(A) 15 January, 1950   (B)

(B) 26 January, 1950

(C) 15 August, 1950    (D)

(D) 15 January, 1950

Ans .  (B) 26 January, 1950

Q.3 Setting a supreme court was Calcutta is a part of?

(A) Regulating Act of 1773

(B) Pitts India Act of 1784

(C) Charter Act of 1793

(D) Charter Act of 1893

Ans .  (B) Pitts India Act of 1784

Q.4 Which Act is associated with "Courts can interpret the rules and regulations."?

(A) Regulating Act of 1773

(B) Pitts India Act of 1784

(C) Charter Act of 1793

(D) Charter Act of 1893

Ans .  (C) Charter Act of 1793

Q.5 The Christian Missionaries were allowed to spread their religion in India, under the Act?

(A) Pitts India Act of 1784

(B) Charter Act of 1813

(C) Charter Act of 1833

(D) Charter Act of 1853

Ans .  (B) Charter Act of 1813

Q.6 A separate Governor for Bengal to be appointed under the act?

(A) Pitts India Act of 1784

(B) Charter Act of 1793

(C) Charter Act of 1733

(D) Charter Act of 1753

Ans .  (D) Charter Act of 1753

Q.7 The first statute for the governance of India, under the direct rule of the British Government, was the

(A) Government of India Act, 1858

(B) Government of India Act, 1861

(C) Government of India Act, 1892

(D) Government of India Act, 1915

Ans .  (A) Government of India Act, 1858

Q.8 Which Act enabled the Governor General to associate representatives of the Indian People with the work of legislation by nominating them to his expanded council?

(A) Government of India Act, 1858

(B) Government Act of India Act, 1861

(C) Government of India Act, 1892

(D) Government of India Act, 1915

Ans .  (B) Government Act of India Act, 1861

Q.9 Under which Act, The councils were having the power to discuss the budget and addressing questions to the executive.

(A) Government of India Act, 1858

(B) Government of India Act, 1861

(C) Government of India Act, 1892

(D) Government of India Act, 1915

Ans .  (C) Government of India Act, 1892

Q.10 Which Act was passed to consolidate the provisions of the preceding Government of India Acts?

(A) Government of India Act, 1858

(B) Government of India Act, 1861

(C) Government of India Act, 1892

(D) Government of India Act, 1915

Ans .  (D) Government of India Act, 1915

Q.11 The powers of the Indian Parliament to amend Fundamental Rights was established by

(A) 21st Amendement (B)

(B) 25th Amendement

(C) 90th Amendement (D)

(D) 42nd Amendement

Ans .  (B) 25th Amendement

Q.12 The First Constitutional Amendment was made in the year

(A) 1950   

(B) 1951

(C) 1952   

(D) 1955

Ans .  (B) 1951

Q.13 The electoral list with the photograph is introduced in Tamil Nadu during the year

(A) 2004   

(B) 2006

(C) 2005   

(D) 2000

Ans . (B) 2006

Q.14 Which is the first country in the world guaranteed right to information?

(A) America         

(B) France

(C) England        

(D) Sweeden

Ans .  (D) Sweeden 

Q.15 Who is the Governor of Reserve Bank of India at present?

(A) Rangarajan  

(B) Bimal Jalan

(C) Y. Reddy      

(D) Urjit Patel

Ans .  (D) Urjit Patel

Q.16 The inquiry of Centre-State relation is conducted by

(A) Santhanam committee

(B) Sarkaria committee

(C) Ashok Mehta committee

(D) None of these

Ans .  (B) Sarkaria committee

Q.17 When was the constituent assembly established to frame the constitution of India?

(A) 6th December, 1946       

(B) 26th November, 1949

(C) 26th December, 1949    

(D) 10th June, 1946

Ans . (A) 6th December, 1946

Q.18 The Indian constitution is a

(A) a brief constitution

(B) very brief constitution

(C) medium constitution

(D) bulkiest constitution

Ans .  (D) bulkiest constitution

Q.19 The constitution of India is

(A) flexible

(B) rigid

(C) partly rigid and partly flexible

(D) none of these

Ans . (C) partly rigid and partly flexible

Q.20 How many items the concurrent list comprises in the Indian Constitution?

(A) 47 items       

(B) 66 items

(C) 96 items       

(D) 99 items

Ans .  (A) 47 items       

Q.21 The theory of Natural Rights holds that—

(A) Rights are a divine creation

(B) Rights came from the pre-civil society

(C) Rights were granted by the king

(D) Rights are granted by the Constitution

Ans .  (B) Rights came from the pre-civil society

Q.22 Who among the following supports the principle of natural inequality?

(A) Polybius       

(B) Cicero

(C) Rousseau    

(D) Plato

Ans .  (D) Plato

Q.23 The idea of ‘positive liberty’ was first conceived by—

(A) Aristotle        

(B) Hegel

(C) Green 

(D) Laski

Ans .  (C) Green 

Q.24 Which one is not the principle of Parliamentary government in a democracy?

(A) Collective responsibility of Executive

(B) Fixed Tenure

(C) Prime Minister as Primes inter pares

(D) Judicial guarantee of Fundamental Rights

Ans .  (B) Fixed Tenure

Q.25 The Executive in Presidential form of government is powerful because—

(A) the Legislature is weak

(B) judges are appointed by the President

(C) it enjoys the fixity of tenure

(D) the procedure of impeachment is cumbersome

Ans .  (C) it enjoys the fixity of tenure

Q.26 Presidential form of government is based on the principle of—

(A) accountability of Executive to Judiciary

(B) independence of the Executive

(C) separation of powers

(D) the sovereignty of the Legislature

Ans .  (B) independence of the Executive

Q.27 Which one of the following thinkers proposed the criterion of falsifiability as the measure of scientific truth?

(A) Levi-Strauss

(B) Max Weber

(C) Karl Popper 

(D) Karl Marx

Ans .  (C) Karl Popper 

Q.28 For Aristotle, the State should be governed by a political statesman having which one of the following virtues?

(A) Reason

(B) Knowledge

(C) Prudence     

(D) Wealth

Ans .  (C) Prudence     

Q.29 Who among the following has coined the term power elite?

(A) Robert Dahl  

(B) Wright Mills

(C) Karl Marx     

(D) V. Pareto

Ans .  (B) Wright Mills

Q.30 Which one of the following is suggested by the concept of universal citizenship?

(A) Identical rights for all persons

(B) Identical rights for all citizens

(C) Common rights for all with some special rights for minorities

(D) Single citizenship in the world

Ans .  (D) Single citizenship in the world

Q.31 The Parliament of India cannot be regarded as a sovereign body because

(A) it can legislate only on subjects entrusted to the Centre by the Constitution

(B) it has to operate within the limits prescribed by the Constitution

(C) the Supreme Court can declare laws passed by parliament as unconstitutional if they contravene the provisions of the Constitution

(D) All of the above

Ans .  (D) All of the above

Q.32 The name of the Laccadive, Minicoy and Amindivi islands was changed to Lakshadweep by an Act of Parliament in

(A) 1970   

(B) 1971

(C) 1972   

(D) 1973

Ans .  (D) 1973

Q.33 The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by

(A) the people

(B) Lok Sabha

(C) elected members of the legislative assembly

(D) elected members of the legislative council

Ans .  (C) elected members of the legislative assembly

Q.34 The members of the panchayat are

(A) nominated by the district officer

(B) the electorates of the respective territorial constituencies

(C) nominated by local self-government minister of the state

(D) nominated by the block development organization

Ans .  (B) the electorates of the respective territorial constituencies

Q.35 The power to decide an election petition is vested in the

(A) Parliament   

(B) Supreme Court

(C) High courts  

(D) Election Commission

Ans .  (C) High courts  

Q.36 The Parliament of India can make use of the residuary powers

(A) at all times

(B) only during national emergency

(C) during a national emergency as well as a constitutional emergency as well in a state

(D) None of the above

Ans . (A) at all times(A)

 at all times

Q.37 The members of Lok Sabha hold office for a term of

(A) 4 years

(B) 5 years

(C) 6 years

(D) 8 years

Ans .  (B) 5 years 

Q.38 The Parliament exercises control over the council of ministers, the real executive, in several ways. Which one of the following has been wrongly listed as a method of control over executive?

(A) Questions

(B) Supplementary questions

(C) Adjournment motions

(D) None of the above

Ans .  (D) None of the above

Q.39 The number of writs that can be prayed for and issued by the Supreme Court and/or a High Court is

(A) 3

(B) 4

(C) 5

(D) 6

Ans .  (C) 5

Q.40 The minimum age to qualify for election to the Lok Sabha is

(A) 25 years       

(B) 21 years

(C) 18 years       

(D) 36 years

Ans .  (A) 25 years